Is the story of Barabbas possibly fabricated?











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Note: I believe that the following question is a question of hermeneutics, because exegesis is defined as "a critical interpretation or explanation of the Bible".



I would post the relevant passages, but they are too long to post. They are Matthew 27:15-26, Mark 15:6-15, Luke 23:15-25, and John 18:39-40.



I heard Richard Carrier argue that the story of Barabbas is fabricated and based on the ritual in the Mosaic Law where one lamb was killed as a sacrifice and another was let into the wilderness, found in Leviticus 16.



He says that the name Barabbas is an extremely unusual name, and means "son of a father", which corresponds to what Jesus Christ was, the Son of God the Father. Jesus and Barabbas, therefore, were both "lambs" of the same sort. Added to this is the fact that Barabbas was an insurrectionist, and Jesus was accused of potentially instigating an insurrection, which was ostensibly why He was crucified.



He also says that there is no record of the custom of releasing a prisoner at the Passover outside of the Gospels, and so it was most likely fabricated, adding credence to the idea that the story was invented.



Carrier says that Barabbas was the lamb that was freed set free, and that Jesus was the lamb that was killed as a sacrifice.



Is this theory substantiated?



Thank you.










share|improve this question






















  • Where is hermeneutics defined that way? What are you quoting? Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    3 hours ago










  • I looked it up on Bing (which, incidentally, apparently uses the dictionary of Google, which I find unreliable in certain cases, but not with technical theological terms), and it corresponded to a definition that I found using a relatively unknown dictionary application my phone, which said that hermeneutics is the branch of theology dealing with the principles of exegesis. This is why I define "exegesis", rather than "hermeneutics".
    – CMK
    2 hours ago












  • Would you mind editing the question and just leaving that part off as it isn't documented and it isn't necessary for the answer. For those of us used to being sensitive to unverified assertions that's a bit jarring. Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • @Ruminator I added it, anticipating that some might that the question is not a hermeneutical question.
    – CMK
    43 mins ago















up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1












Note: I believe that the following question is a question of hermeneutics, because exegesis is defined as "a critical interpretation or explanation of the Bible".



I would post the relevant passages, but they are too long to post. They are Matthew 27:15-26, Mark 15:6-15, Luke 23:15-25, and John 18:39-40.



I heard Richard Carrier argue that the story of Barabbas is fabricated and based on the ritual in the Mosaic Law where one lamb was killed as a sacrifice and another was let into the wilderness, found in Leviticus 16.



He says that the name Barabbas is an extremely unusual name, and means "son of a father", which corresponds to what Jesus Christ was, the Son of God the Father. Jesus and Barabbas, therefore, were both "lambs" of the same sort. Added to this is the fact that Barabbas was an insurrectionist, and Jesus was accused of potentially instigating an insurrection, which was ostensibly why He was crucified.



He also says that there is no record of the custom of releasing a prisoner at the Passover outside of the Gospels, and so it was most likely fabricated, adding credence to the idea that the story was invented.



Carrier says that Barabbas was the lamb that was freed set free, and that Jesus was the lamb that was killed as a sacrifice.



Is this theory substantiated?



Thank you.










share|improve this question






















  • Where is hermeneutics defined that way? What are you quoting? Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    3 hours ago










  • I looked it up on Bing (which, incidentally, apparently uses the dictionary of Google, which I find unreliable in certain cases, but not with technical theological terms), and it corresponded to a definition that I found using a relatively unknown dictionary application my phone, which said that hermeneutics is the branch of theology dealing with the principles of exegesis. This is why I define "exegesis", rather than "hermeneutics".
    – CMK
    2 hours ago












  • Would you mind editing the question and just leaving that part off as it isn't documented and it isn't necessary for the answer. For those of us used to being sensitive to unverified assertions that's a bit jarring. Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • @Ruminator I added it, anticipating that some might that the question is not a hermeneutical question.
    – CMK
    43 mins ago













up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1






1





Note: I believe that the following question is a question of hermeneutics, because exegesis is defined as "a critical interpretation or explanation of the Bible".



I would post the relevant passages, but they are too long to post. They are Matthew 27:15-26, Mark 15:6-15, Luke 23:15-25, and John 18:39-40.



I heard Richard Carrier argue that the story of Barabbas is fabricated and based on the ritual in the Mosaic Law where one lamb was killed as a sacrifice and another was let into the wilderness, found in Leviticus 16.



He says that the name Barabbas is an extremely unusual name, and means "son of a father", which corresponds to what Jesus Christ was, the Son of God the Father. Jesus and Barabbas, therefore, were both "lambs" of the same sort. Added to this is the fact that Barabbas was an insurrectionist, and Jesus was accused of potentially instigating an insurrection, which was ostensibly why He was crucified.



He also says that there is no record of the custom of releasing a prisoner at the Passover outside of the Gospels, and so it was most likely fabricated, adding credence to the idea that the story was invented.



Carrier says that Barabbas was the lamb that was freed set free, and that Jesus was the lamb that was killed as a sacrifice.



Is this theory substantiated?



Thank you.










share|improve this question













Note: I believe that the following question is a question of hermeneutics, because exegesis is defined as "a critical interpretation or explanation of the Bible".



I would post the relevant passages, but they are too long to post. They are Matthew 27:15-26, Mark 15:6-15, Luke 23:15-25, and John 18:39-40.



I heard Richard Carrier argue that the story of Barabbas is fabricated and based on the ritual in the Mosaic Law where one lamb was killed as a sacrifice and another was let into the wilderness, found in Leviticus 16.



He says that the name Barabbas is an extremely unusual name, and means "son of a father", which corresponds to what Jesus Christ was, the Son of God the Father. Jesus and Barabbas, therefore, were both "lambs" of the same sort. Added to this is the fact that Barabbas was an insurrectionist, and Jesus was accused of potentially instigating an insurrection, which was ostensibly why He was crucified.



He also says that there is no record of the custom of releasing a prisoner at the Passover outside of the Gospels, and so it was most likely fabricated, adding credence to the idea that the story was invented.



Carrier says that Barabbas was the lamb that was freed set free, and that Jesus was the lamb that was killed as a sacrifice.



Is this theory substantiated?



Thank you.







john matthew luke mark gospels






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asked 4 hours ago









CMK

1808




1808












  • Where is hermeneutics defined that way? What are you quoting? Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    3 hours ago










  • I looked it up on Bing (which, incidentally, apparently uses the dictionary of Google, which I find unreliable in certain cases, but not with technical theological terms), and it corresponded to a definition that I found using a relatively unknown dictionary application my phone, which said that hermeneutics is the branch of theology dealing with the principles of exegesis. This is why I define "exegesis", rather than "hermeneutics".
    – CMK
    2 hours ago












  • Would you mind editing the question and just leaving that part off as it isn't documented and it isn't necessary for the answer. For those of us used to being sensitive to unverified assertions that's a bit jarring. Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • @Ruminator I added it, anticipating that some might that the question is not a hermeneutical question.
    – CMK
    43 mins ago


















  • Where is hermeneutics defined that way? What are you quoting? Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    3 hours ago










  • I looked it up on Bing (which, incidentally, apparently uses the dictionary of Google, which I find unreliable in certain cases, but not with technical theological terms), and it corresponded to a definition that I found using a relatively unknown dictionary application my phone, which said that hermeneutics is the branch of theology dealing with the principles of exegesis. This is why I define "exegesis", rather than "hermeneutics".
    – CMK
    2 hours ago












  • Would you mind editing the question and just leaving that part off as it isn't documented and it isn't necessary for the answer. For those of us used to being sensitive to unverified assertions that's a bit jarring. Thanks.
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • @Ruminator I added it, anticipating that some might that the question is not a hermeneutical question.
    – CMK
    43 mins ago
















Where is hermeneutics defined that way? What are you quoting? Thanks.
– Ruminator
3 hours ago




Where is hermeneutics defined that way? What are you quoting? Thanks.
– Ruminator
3 hours ago












I looked it up on Bing (which, incidentally, apparently uses the dictionary of Google, which I find unreliable in certain cases, but not with technical theological terms), and it corresponded to a definition that I found using a relatively unknown dictionary application my phone, which said that hermeneutics is the branch of theology dealing with the principles of exegesis. This is why I define "exegesis", rather than "hermeneutics".
– CMK
2 hours ago






I looked it up on Bing (which, incidentally, apparently uses the dictionary of Google, which I find unreliable in certain cases, but not with technical theological terms), and it corresponded to a definition that I found using a relatively unknown dictionary application my phone, which said that hermeneutics is the branch of theology dealing with the principles of exegesis. This is why I define "exegesis", rather than "hermeneutics".
– CMK
2 hours ago














Would you mind editing the question and just leaving that part off as it isn't documented and it isn't necessary for the answer. For those of us used to being sensitive to unverified assertions that's a bit jarring. Thanks.
– Ruminator
2 hours ago




Would you mind editing the question and just leaving that part off as it isn't documented and it isn't necessary for the answer. For those of us used to being sensitive to unverified assertions that's a bit jarring. Thanks.
– Ruminator
2 hours ago












@Ruminator I added it, anticipating that some might that the question is not a hermeneutical question.
– CMK
43 mins ago




@Ruminator I added it, anticipating that some might that the question is not a hermeneutical question.
– CMK
43 mins ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote













There would be no reason to doubt the veracity of the bible on the subject of the story of Barabbas and the custom of releasing a prison from prison at the time of the Passover. There is in fact evidence of the custom in the Mishnah. See snips of article below.



Citation:
Chavel, Charles B. “The Releasing of a Prisoner on the Eve of Passover in Ancient Jerusalem.” Journal of Biblical Literature, vol. 60, no. 3, 1941, pp. 273–278. JSTOR, JSTOR, www.jstor.org/stable/3262626.



enter image description here



enter image description here






share|improve this answer





















  • That is what they call a "canonical answer". It answers the question compellingly and is the place to go to find the answer. +1 way up!
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • Another excellent answer and good quote. +1.
    – Dr Peter McGowan
    2 hours ago










  • Thank you for your answer. It makes sense, seeing as prison time is not a punishment to be found in the Old Testament law or elsewhere, and so it does answer the obejction that there was no reference of the cusrom outside of the four Gospels. However, that was only a minor objection, the main objection being the similarity between the name of Barabbas and the title of Jesus Christ as Son of God (the Father), and that Barabbas was an extremely uncommon name at that time. How would you answer these objections? Thank you.
    – CMK
    32 mins ago


















up vote
1
down vote













The question contains a logical fallacy. The fact that something is not mentioned in secular records does not make it false. That is an argument from silence based on what is unknown. The Bible record can be treated as equally reliable (I believe more reliable) than secular records which are often very patchy.



The interesting theological point about the release of Barabbas is the miniature of salvation. Barabbas was a convicted felon; Jesus was sinless (Heb 4:15, 7:26-28, etc). Jesus was executed so that Barabbas was released.



This is exactly what happens to us as sinners (Rom 3:10-18). Jesus was treated as we deserve so that we will be treated as He deserved!






share|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer. I understand that the last argument is an argument from silence. Perhaps that's why Carrier seemed to have used it as a side-argument to the main argument, that Barabbas' name means "son of a father", and Christ was the Son of God the Father. Also, what you said about Barabbas being released while Christ was executed, although I certainly agree with you, is the exact reason why Carrier says says that the story is invented. How would you answer this objection?
    – CMK
    25 mins ago


















up vote
1
down vote













Alb has already answered the question with quality sources but I want to add a little more to this matter:




  • if every event in the scriptures that were filled with symbolic meaning were scrapped as artifice then there would be little Bible left! That is how they work. But consider, the hand of man is belied by "artifice". That is, what man has done is in jarring contrast, like a tractor in a field, to what God has made. But when the historical passages also have symbolic and prophet images then you know that all these were made with the same divine hand.


  • "To the Hebrews" explains that Jesus is the animal that died and the scapegoat because he permanently left death.







share|improve this answer





















  • I understand your argument that the correspondence between this story and the ritual with the goats was divine; but the objection that the story was contrived still could be made based upon this information.
    – CMK
    18 mins ago











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3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
3
down vote













There would be no reason to doubt the veracity of the bible on the subject of the story of Barabbas and the custom of releasing a prison from prison at the time of the Passover. There is in fact evidence of the custom in the Mishnah. See snips of article below.



Citation:
Chavel, Charles B. “The Releasing of a Prisoner on the Eve of Passover in Ancient Jerusalem.” Journal of Biblical Literature, vol. 60, no. 3, 1941, pp. 273–278. JSTOR, JSTOR, www.jstor.org/stable/3262626.



enter image description here



enter image description here






share|improve this answer





















  • That is what they call a "canonical answer". It answers the question compellingly and is the place to go to find the answer. +1 way up!
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • Another excellent answer and good quote. +1.
    – Dr Peter McGowan
    2 hours ago










  • Thank you for your answer. It makes sense, seeing as prison time is not a punishment to be found in the Old Testament law or elsewhere, and so it does answer the obejction that there was no reference of the cusrom outside of the four Gospels. However, that was only a minor objection, the main objection being the similarity between the name of Barabbas and the title of Jesus Christ as Son of God (the Father), and that Barabbas was an extremely uncommon name at that time. How would you answer these objections? Thank you.
    – CMK
    32 mins ago















up vote
3
down vote













There would be no reason to doubt the veracity of the bible on the subject of the story of Barabbas and the custom of releasing a prison from prison at the time of the Passover. There is in fact evidence of the custom in the Mishnah. See snips of article below.



Citation:
Chavel, Charles B. “The Releasing of a Prisoner on the Eve of Passover in Ancient Jerusalem.” Journal of Biblical Literature, vol. 60, no. 3, 1941, pp. 273–278. JSTOR, JSTOR, www.jstor.org/stable/3262626.



enter image description here



enter image description here






share|improve this answer





















  • That is what they call a "canonical answer". It answers the question compellingly and is the place to go to find the answer. +1 way up!
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • Another excellent answer and good quote. +1.
    – Dr Peter McGowan
    2 hours ago










  • Thank you for your answer. It makes sense, seeing as prison time is not a punishment to be found in the Old Testament law or elsewhere, and so it does answer the obejction that there was no reference of the cusrom outside of the four Gospels. However, that was only a minor objection, the main objection being the similarity between the name of Barabbas and the title of Jesus Christ as Son of God (the Father), and that Barabbas was an extremely uncommon name at that time. How would you answer these objections? Thank you.
    – CMK
    32 mins ago













up vote
3
down vote










up vote
3
down vote









There would be no reason to doubt the veracity of the bible on the subject of the story of Barabbas and the custom of releasing a prison from prison at the time of the Passover. There is in fact evidence of the custom in the Mishnah. See snips of article below.



Citation:
Chavel, Charles B. “The Releasing of a Prisoner on the Eve of Passover in Ancient Jerusalem.” Journal of Biblical Literature, vol. 60, no. 3, 1941, pp. 273–278. JSTOR, JSTOR, www.jstor.org/stable/3262626.



enter image description here



enter image description here






share|improve this answer












There would be no reason to doubt the veracity of the bible on the subject of the story of Barabbas and the custom of releasing a prison from prison at the time of the Passover. There is in fact evidence of the custom in the Mishnah. See snips of article below.



Citation:
Chavel, Charles B. “The Releasing of a Prisoner on the Eve of Passover in Ancient Jerusalem.” Journal of Biblical Literature, vol. 60, no. 3, 1941, pp. 273–278. JSTOR, JSTOR, www.jstor.org/stable/3262626.



enter image description here



enter image description here







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 3 hours ago









alb

1,554214




1,554214












  • That is what they call a "canonical answer". It answers the question compellingly and is the place to go to find the answer. +1 way up!
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • Another excellent answer and good quote. +1.
    – Dr Peter McGowan
    2 hours ago










  • Thank you for your answer. It makes sense, seeing as prison time is not a punishment to be found in the Old Testament law or elsewhere, and so it does answer the obejction that there was no reference of the cusrom outside of the four Gospels. However, that was only a minor objection, the main objection being the similarity between the name of Barabbas and the title of Jesus Christ as Son of God (the Father), and that Barabbas was an extremely uncommon name at that time. How would you answer these objections? Thank you.
    – CMK
    32 mins ago


















  • That is what they call a "canonical answer". It answers the question compellingly and is the place to go to find the answer. +1 way up!
    – Ruminator
    2 hours ago










  • Another excellent answer and good quote. +1.
    – Dr Peter McGowan
    2 hours ago










  • Thank you for your answer. It makes sense, seeing as prison time is not a punishment to be found in the Old Testament law or elsewhere, and so it does answer the obejction that there was no reference of the cusrom outside of the four Gospels. However, that was only a minor objection, the main objection being the similarity between the name of Barabbas and the title of Jesus Christ as Son of God (the Father), and that Barabbas was an extremely uncommon name at that time. How would you answer these objections? Thank you.
    – CMK
    32 mins ago
















That is what they call a "canonical answer". It answers the question compellingly and is the place to go to find the answer. +1 way up!
– Ruminator
2 hours ago




That is what they call a "canonical answer". It answers the question compellingly and is the place to go to find the answer. +1 way up!
– Ruminator
2 hours ago












Another excellent answer and good quote. +1.
– Dr Peter McGowan
2 hours ago




Another excellent answer and good quote. +1.
– Dr Peter McGowan
2 hours ago












Thank you for your answer. It makes sense, seeing as prison time is not a punishment to be found in the Old Testament law or elsewhere, and so it does answer the obejction that there was no reference of the cusrom outside of the four Gospels. However, that was only a minor objection, the main objection being the similarity between the name of Barabbas and the title of Jesus Christ as Son of God (the Father), and that Barabbas was an extremely uncommon name at that time. How would you answer these objections? Thank you.
– CMK
32 mins ago




Thank you for your answer. It makes sense, seeing as prison time is not a punishment to be found in the Old Testament law or elsewhere, and so it does answer the obejction that there was no reference of the cusrom outside of the four Gospels. However, that was only a minor objection, the main objection being the similarity between the name of Barabbas and the title of Jesus Christ as Son of God (the Father), and that Barabbas was an extremely uncommon name at that time. How would you answer these objections? Thank you.
– CMK
32 mins ago










up vote
1
down vote













The question contains a logical fallacy. The fact that something is not mentioned in secular records does not make it false. That is an argument from silence based on what is unknown. The Bible record can be treated as equally reliable (I believe more reliable) than secular records which are often very patchy.



The interesting theological point about the release of Barabbas is the miniature of salvation. Barabbas was a convicted felon; Jesus was sinless (Heb 4:15, 7:26-28, etc). Jesus was executed so that Barabbas was released.



This is exactly what happens to us as sinners (Rom 3:10-18). Jesus was treated as we deserve so that we will be treated as He deserved!






share|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer. I understand that the last argument is an argument from silence. Perhaps that's why Carrier seemed to have used it as a side-argument to the main argument, that Barabbas' name means "son of a father", and Christ was the Son of God the Father. Also, what you said about Barabbas being released while Christ was executed, although I certainly agree with you, is the exact reason why Carrier says says that the story is invented. How would you answer this objection?
    – CMK
    25 mins ago















up vote
1
down vote













The question contains a logical fallacy. The fact that something is not mentioned in secular records does not make it false. That is an argument from silence based on what is unknown. The Bible record can be treated as equally reliable (I believe more reliable) than secular records which are often very patchy.



The interesting theological point about the release of Barabbas is the miniature of salvation. Barabbas was a convicted felon; Jesus was sinless (Heb 4:15, 7:26-28, etc). Jesus was executed so that Barabbas was released.



This is exactly what happens to us as sinners (Rom 3:10-18). Jesus was treated as we deserve so that we will be treated as He deserved!






share|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer. I understand that the last argument is an argument from silence. Perhaps that's why Carrier seemed to have used it as a side-argument to the main argument, that Barabbas' name means "son of a father", and Christ was the Son of God the Father. Also, what you said about Barabbas being released while Christ was executed, although I certainly agree with you, is the exact reason why Carrier says says that the story is invented. How would you answer this objection?
    – CMK
    25 mins ago













up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









The question contains a logical fallacy. The fact that something is not mentioned in secular records does not make it false. That is an argument from silence based on what is unknown. The Bible record can be treated as equally reliable (I believe more reliable) than secular records which are often very patchy.



The interesting theological point about the release of Barabbas is the miniature of salvation. Barabbas was a convicted felon; Jesus was sinless (Heb 4:15, 7:26-28, etc). Jesus was executed so that Barabbas was released.



This is exactly what happens to us as sinners (Rom 3:10-18). Jesus was treated as we deserve so that we will be treated as He deserved!






share|improve this answer












The question contains a logical fallacy. The fact that something is not mentioned in secular records does not make it false. That is an argument from silence based on what is unknown. The Bible record can be treated as equally reliable (I believe more reliable) than secular records which are often very patchy.



The interesting theological point about the release of Barabbas is the miniature of salvation. Barabbas was a convicted felon; Jesus was sinless (Heb 4:15, 7:26-28, etc). Jesus was executed so that Barabbas was released.



This is exactly what happens to us as sinners (Rom 3:10-18). Jesus was treated as we deserve so that we will be treated as He deserved!







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 2 hours ago









Dr Peter McGowan

3,721116




3,721116












  • Thank you for your answer. I understand that the last argument is an argument from silence. Perhaps that's why Carrier seemed to have used it as a side-argument to the main argument, that Barabbas' name means "son of a father", and Christ was the Son of God the Father. Also, what you said about Barabbas being released while Christ was executed, although I certainly agree with you, is the exact reason why Carrier says says that the story is invented. How would you answer this objection?
    – CMK
    25 mins ago


















  • Thank you for your answer. I understand that the last argument is an argument from silence. Perhaps that's why Carrier seemed to have used it as a side-argument to the main argument, that Barabbas' name means "son of a father", and Christ was the Son of God the Father. Also, what you said about Barabbas being released while Christ was executed, although I certainly agree with you, is the exact reason why Carrier says says that the story is invented. How would you answer this objection?
    – CMK
    25 mins ago
















Thank you for your answer. I understand that the last argument is an argument from silence. Perhaps that's why Carrier seemed to have used it as a side-argument to the main argument, that Barabbas' name means "son of a father", and Christ was the Son of God the Father. Also, what you said about Barabbas being released while Christ was executed, although I certainly agree with you, is the exact reason why Carrier says says that the story is invented. How would you answer this objection?
– CMK
25 mins ago




Thank you for your answer. I understand that the last argument is an argument from silence. Perhaps that's why Carrier seemed to have used it as a side-argument to the main argument, that Barabbas' name means "son of a father", and Christ was the Son of God the Father. Also, what you said about Barabbas being released while Christ was executed, although I certainly agree with you, is the exact reason why Carrier says says that the story is invented. How would you answer this objection?
– CMK
25 mins ago










up vote
1
down vote













Alb has already answered the question with quality sources but I want to add a little more to this matter:




  • if every event in the scriptures that were filled with symbolic meaning were scrapped as artifice then there would be little Bible left! That is how they work. But consider, the hand of man is belied by "artifice". That is, what man has done is in jarring contrast, like a tractor in a field, to what God has made. But when the historical passages also have symbolic and prophet images then you know that all these were made with the same divine hand.


  • "To the Hebrews" explains that Jesus is the animal that died and the scapegoat because he permanently left death.







share|improve this answer





















  • I understand your argument that the correspondence between this story and the ritual with the goats was divine; but the objection that the story was contrived still could be made based upon this information.
    – CMK
    18 mins ago















up vote
1
down vote













Alb has already answered the question with quality sources but I want to add a little more to this matter:




  • if every event in the scriptures that were filled with symbolic meaning were scrapped as artifice then there would be little Bible left! That is how they work. But consider, the hand of man is belied by "artifice". That is, what man has done is in jarring contrast, like a tractor in a field, to what God has made. But when the historical passages also have symbolic and prophet images then you know that all these were made with the same divine hand.


  • "To the Hebrews" explains that Jesus is the animal that died and the scapegoat because he permanently left death.







share|improve this answer





















  • I understand your argument that the correspondence between this story and the ritual with the goats was divine; but the objection that the story was contrived still could be made based upon this information.
    – CMK
    18 mins ago













up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









Alb has already answered the question with quality sources but I want to add a little more to this matter:




  • if every event in the scriptures that were filled with symbolic meaning were scrapped as artifice then there would be little Bible left! That is how they work. But consider, the hand of man is belied by "artifice". That is, what man has done is in jarring contrast, like a tractor in a field, to what God has made. But when the historical passages also have symbolic and prophet images then you know that all these were made with the same divine hand.


  • "To the Hebrews" explains that Jesus is the animal that died and the scapegoat because he permanently left death.







share|improve this answer












Alb has already answered the question with quality sources but I want to add a little more to this matter:




  • if every event in the scriptures that were filled with symbolic meaning were scrapped as artifice then there would be little Bible left! That is how they work. But consider, the hand of man is belied by "artifice". That is, what man has done is in jarring contrast, like a tractor in a field, to what God has made. But when the historical passages also have symbolic and prophet images then you know that all these were made with the same divine hand.


  • "To the Hebrews" explains that Jesus is the animal that died and the scapegoat because he permanently left death.








share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 1 hour ago









Ruminator

2,6532733




2,6532733












  • I understand your argument that the correspondence between this story and the ritual with the goats was divine; but the objection that the story was contrived still could be made based upon this information.
    – CMK
    18 mins ago


















  • I understand your argument that the correspondence between this story and the ritual with the goats was divine; but the objection that the story was contrived still could be made based upon this information.
    – CMK
    18 mins ago
















I understand your argument that the correspondence between this story and the ritual with the goats was divine; but the objection that the story was contrived still could be made based upon this information.
– CMK
18 mins ago




I understand your argument that the correspondence between this story and the ritual with the goats was divine; but the objection that the story was contrived still could be made based upon this information.
– CMK
18 mins ago


















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