Can a celebrity sue someone who takes obnoxious pictures/videos of him in public and uploads onto internet...











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Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.










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  • 6




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    23 hours ago






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    16 hours ago






  • 5




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    16 hours ago






  • 6




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    15 hours ago










  • @UKMonkey I'm pretty sure that comment has been done to death now. No one asking a question about suing cares about the trivial case of filing a suit that is certain to lose. If you really feel compelled to mention the difference, try, "Just FYI, 'sue' technically refers to filing a suit; it doesn't have to be winnable."
    – jpmc26
    4 hours ago















up vote
8
down vote

favorite












Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.










share|improve this question









New contributor




user768421 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 6




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    23 hours ago






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    16 hours ago






  • 5




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    16 hours ago






  • 6




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    15 hours ago










  • @UKMonkey I'm pretty sure that comment has been done to death now. No one asking a question about suing cares about the trivial case of filing a suit that is certain to lose. If you really feel compelled to mention the difference, try, "Just FYI, 'sue' technically refers to filing a suit; it doesn't have to be winnable."
    – jpmc26
    4 hours ago













up vote
8
down vote

favorite









up vote
8
down vote

favorite











Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.










share|improve this question









New contributor




user768421 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Suppose a celebrity digs his nose or scratches his private part because of sudden itch or performs some unsightly act in public. Someone takes his picture/video and uploads onto internet without his permission. The celebrity is shamed in public. By depicting the celebrity in an unflattering light, his value as a celebrity is diminished.



Can the celebrity sue for damages since the pictures/video were taken without his permission? His privacy has also been violated.



Assume celebrity is American.







privacy photography right-of-publicity






share|improve this question









New contributor




user768421 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









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edited 1 hour ago





















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asked 23 hours ago









user768421

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16115




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  • 6




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    23 hours ago






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    16 hours ago






  • 5




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    16 hours ago






  • 6




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    15 hours ago










  • @UKMonkey I'm pretty sure that comment has been done to death now. No one asking a question about suing cares about the trivial case of filing a suit that is certain to lose. If you really feel compelled to mention the difference, try, "Just FYI, 'sue' technically refers to filing a suit; it doesn't have to be winnable."
    – jpmc26
    4 hours ago














  • 6




    I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
    – colmde
    23 hours ago






  • 1




    Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
    – Darkwing
    16 hours ago






  • 5




    That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
    – Trilarion
    16 hours ago






  • 6




    "Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
    – UKMonkey
    15 hours ago










  • @UKMonkey I'm pretty sure that comment has been done to death now. No one asking a question about suing cares about the trivial case of filing a suit that is certain to lose. If you really feel compelled to mention the difference, try, "Just FYI, 'sue' technically refers to filing a suit; it doesn't have to be winnable."
    – jpmc26
    4 hours ago








6




6




I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
– colmde
23 hours ago




I suppose you'd have to specify a location, but I would think not seeing how many such photos are seen in tabloid newspapers...
– colmde
23 hours ago




1




1




Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
– Darkwing
16 hours ago




Do you mean "in public" as in a public place or "in public" as in their public facing function. There is a difference between sitting in a public cafe with a friend and walking over the red carpet at the premiere of your newest movie.
– Darkwing
16 hours ago




5




5




That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
– Trilarion
16 hours ago




That depends on the jurisdiction. In some countries there is a kind of property right of images of yourself. See for example de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recht_am_eigenen_Bild_(Deutschland) for the situation in Germany. Typically celebrities have less protection though and also if the person is the main target of the picture.
– Trilarion
16 hours ago




6




6




"Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
– UKMonkey
15 hours ago




"Can the celebrity sue for damages" Yes- all they need is a lawyer who will take their money and start the proceedings. "Can the celebrity win" Is the question that everyone is answering.
– UKMonkey
15 hours ago












@UKMonkey I'm pretty sure that comment has been done to death now. No one asking a question about suing cares about the trivial case of filing a suit that is certain to lose. If you really feel compelled to mention the difference, try, "Just FYI, 'sue' technically refers to filing a suit; it doesn't have to be winnable."
– jpmc26
4 hours ago




@UKMonkey I'm pretty sure that comment has been done to death now. No one asking a question about suing cares about the trivial case of filing a suit that is certain to lose. If you really feel compelled to mention the difference, try, "Just FYI, 'sue' technically refers to filing a suit; it doesn't have to be winnable."
– jpmc26
4 hours ago










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
20
down vote



accepted










As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1




    Thanks for the answer. Upvoted. What about privacy in a private place such as restaurant?
    – user768421
    23 hours ago






  • 3




    @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
    – Greendrake
    23 hours ago






  • 2




    I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
    – ANeves
    15 hours ago






  • 1




    @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
    – only_pro
    14 hours ago








  • 2




    The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
    – David Schwartz
    12 hours ago




















up vote
3
down vote













If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




  • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

  • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

  • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






share|improve this answer

















  • 1




    To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
    – John Bollinger
    15 hours ago






  • 1




    @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
    – Malvolio
    15 hours ago






  • 2




    How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
    – John Bollinger
    15 hours ago








  • 5




    @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
    – Nic Hartley
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
    – David Schwartz
    12 hours ago


















up vote
1
down vote













Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






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    up vote
    -4
    down vote













    Yes.
    Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



    There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






    share|improve this answer








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    • 2




      Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
      – Harper
      10 hours ago













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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes








    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    20
    down vote



    accepted










    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






    share|improve this answer



















    • 1




      Thanks for the answer. Upvoted. What about privacy in a private place such as restaurant?
      – user768421
      23 hours ago






    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      23 hours ago






    • 2




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      14 hours ago








    • 2




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago

















    up vote
    20
    down vote



    accepted










    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






    share|improve this answer



















    • 1




      Thanks for the answer. Upvoted. What about privacy in a private place such as restaurant?
      – user768421
      23 hours ago






    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      23 hours ago






    • 2




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      14 hours ago








    • 2




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago















    up vote
    20
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    20
    down vote



    accepted






    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.






    share|improve this answer














    As per this question & answer, in the US there is no expectation of privacy in public places (not to be confused with private places where public is allowed e.g. supermarkets). Photos taken in public belong to the photo taker and he/she is free to use them in whatever way. No privacy is violated here.



    The fact that the person whose photo was taken was a celebrity does not change anything. It would have been completely their fault to expect privacy in a public place and behave rashly.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 12 hours ago









    ANeves

    1033




    1033










    answered 23 hours ago









    Greendrake

    2,2091620




    2,2091620








    • 1




      Thanks for the answer. Upvoted. What about privacy in a private place such as restaurant?
      – user768421
      23 hours ago






    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      23 hours ago






    • 2




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      14 hours ago








    • 2




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago
















    • 1




      Thanks for the answer. Upvoted. What about privacy in a private place such as restaurant?
      – user768421
      23 hours ago






    • 3




      @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
      – Greendrake
      23 hours ago






    • 2




      I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
      – ANeves
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
      – only_pro
      14 hours ago








    • 2




      The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago










    1




    1




    Thanks for the answer. Upvoted. What about privacy in a private place such as restaurant?
    – user768421
    23 hours ago




    Thanks for the answer. Upvoted. What about privacy in a private place such as restaurant?
    – user768421
    23 hours ago




    3




    3




    @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
    – Greendrake
    23 hours ago




    @user768421 taking photos will be allowed like in public unless expressly prohibited by the place owner.
    – Greendrake
    23 hours ago




    2




    2




    I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
    – ANeves
    15 hours ago




    I have proposed an edit to make the answer scoped to the US. In other countries, there is expectation of privacy. See the comment from Trilarion on the question: law.stackexchange.com/questions/33692/…
    – ANeves
    15 hours ago




    1




    1




    @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
    – only_pro
    14 hours ago






    @user768421 Restaurants count as "in public" for these purposes, unless the celebrity is at a private event in the restaurant where public access is restricted. If you are in a place that is open to the public (such as a restaurant), then you are in public.
    – only_pro
    14 hours ago






    2




    2




    The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
    – David Schwartz
    12 hours ago






    The last paragraph is not correct in many US jurisdictions. For example, the fact that the person is a celebrity matters to the injury prong of the four step test to determine if the use violates California's common law right of publicity. The first paragraph is also misleading because it doesn't point out that commercial use is restricted in many jurisdictions by statute.
    – David Schwartz
    12 hours ago












    up vote
    3
    down vote













    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      15 hours ago






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago








    • 5




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      14 hours ago






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago















    up vote
    3
    down vote













    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      15 hours ago






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago








    • 5




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      14 hours ago






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago













    up vote
    3
    down vote










    up vote
    3
    down vote









    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.






    share|improve this answer












    If you're talking about the United States, the celebrity will lose this case:




    • Being mildly embarrassed does not give rise to damages

    • The First Amendment allows us to gather and disseminate information, including photographic information;

    • The right to privacy does not cover the things you do in public, in front of cameras.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 23 hours ago









    bdb484

    10.3k11539




    10.3k11539








    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      15 hours ago






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago








    • 5




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      14 hours ago






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago














    • 1




      To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago






    • 1




      @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
      – Malvolio
      15 hours ago






    • 2




      How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
      – John Bollinger
      15 hours ago








    • 5




      @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
      – Nic Hartley
      14 hours ago






    • 1




      @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
      – David Schwartz
      12 hours ago








    1




    1




    To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
    – John Bollinger
    15 hours ago




    To the best of my knowledge, the first amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects against government reprisals for the content of speech, not private reprisals, such as civil lawsuits. Or social media shaming mobs. Am I mistaken?
    – John Bollinger
    15 hours ago




    1




    1




    @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
    – Malvolio
    15 hours ago




    @JohnBollinger — you are mistaken. A lawsuit is still carried out under the laws of the state or the country, laws which must respect freedom of speech, religion, and so on. I cannot (successfully) sue you for being Jewish or for not being Jewish, for voting Republican or voting Democrat. Purely private actions — "social media shaming", boycotts — have no such limits.
    – Malvolio
    15 hours ago




    2




    2




    How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
    – John Bollinger
    15 hours ago






    How, then, is defamation law possible? I think the correct analysis has to be about whether there are any actionable damages, not about whether any such damages arose from speech.
    – John Bollinger
    15 hours ago






    5




    5




    @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
    – Nic Hartley
    14 hours ago




    @JohnBollinger Because defamation is when you intentionally cause harm through speech, and lie to do it. It's an extension of the "fire in the theater" logic.
    – Nic Hartley
    14 hours ago




    1




    1




    @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
    – David Schwartz
    12 hours ago




    @NicHartley The "fire in a theater" logic is that you're not making an argument or conveying information for people to consider but instead provoking an immediate reaction with no opportunity for thought or discussion. Defamation is in no way an extension of that logic because defamation often does consist of advancing arguments and claims for deliberate, rational consideration.
    – David Schwartz
    12 hours ago










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



    The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






    share|improve this answer








    New contributor




    John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.






















      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



      The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






      share|improve this answer








      New contributor




      John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.




















        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



        The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!






        share|improve this answer








        New contributor




        John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.









        Just because a person expects to lose a case may not stop them vexatiously suing you as a discouragement / punishment - if they can afford a big legal bill and you can't, just the threat of a big court case can be too much of a risk for a lot of people.



        The UK courts in particular have been used for libel tourism as documented in Private Eye magazine - and they know plenty about libel!







        share|improve this answer








        New contributor




        John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.









        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer






        New contributor




        John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.









        answered 13 hours ago









        John U

        1192




        1192




        New contributor




        John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.





        New contributor





        John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.






        John U is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.






















            up vote
            -4
            down vote













            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            • 2




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              10 hours ago

















            up vote
            -4
            down vote













            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.














            • 2




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              10 hours ago















            up vote
            -4
            down vote










            up vote
            -4
            down vote









            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.






            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            Yes.
            Anyone can sue anyone for any reason.



            There is no expectation that they will succeed at their suit, it could be a completely frivolous waste of time and money.







            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer






            New contributor




            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            answered 12 hours ago









            Miles Prower

            11




            11




            New contributor




            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.





            New contributor





            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.






            Miles Prower is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.








            • 2




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              10 hours ago
















            • 2




              Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
              – Harper
              10 hours ago










            2




            2




            Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
            – Harper
            10 hours ago






            Welcome to StackExchange. You could cut and paste this answer to almost any legal question, and it wouldn't be wrong. But what makes a good answer here is more specificity, i.e. Things that pertain to this situation in particular.
            – Harper
            10 hours ago












            user768421 is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










             

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