Suppose BA is nilpotent, is it always true that AB is nilpotent?
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Given matrices $A$ and $B$ such that $BA$ is nilpotent. Is it true that $AB$ is nilpotent?
My thoughts so far:
$BA$ nilpotent $Rightarrow (BA)^{k} = 0$ for some positive integer k.
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA = B(AB)(AB)....(AB)A = B(AB)^{k-1}A = 0$
But I have no idea how to proceed from here. If its not true, is there any counterexample?
linear-algebra
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Given matrices $A$ and $B$ such that $BA$ is nilpotent. Is it true that $AB$ is nilpotent?
My thoughts so far:
$BA$ nilpotent $Rightarrow (BA)^{k} = 0$ for some positive integer k.
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA = B(AB)(AB)....(AB)A = B(AB)^{k-1}A = 0$
But I have no idea how to proceed from here. If its not true, is there any counterexample?
linear-algebra
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You can also explain the other way. AB and BA share eigenvalues. Eigenvalues of BA are zeros consequently also eigenvalues of AB. Hence AB is nilpotent.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Given matrices $A$ and $B$ such that $BA$ is nilpotent. Is it true that $AB$ is nilpotent?
My thoughts so far:
$BA$ nilpotent $Rightarrow (BA)^{k} = 0$ for some positive integer k.
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA = B(AB)(AB)....(AB)A = B(AB)^{k-1}A = 0$
But I have no idea how to proceed from here. If its not true, is there any counterexample?
linear-algebra
$endgroup$
Given matrices $A$ and $B$ such that $BA$ is nilpotent. Is it true that $AB$ is nilpotent?
My thoughts so far:
$BA$ nilpotent $Rightarrow (BA)^{k} = 0$ for some positive integer k.
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA = B(AB)(AB)....(AB)A = B(AB)^{k-1}A = 0$
But I have no idea how to proceed from here. If its not true, is there any counterexample?
linear-algebra
linear-algebra
asked 1 hour ago
aaaaaa
274
274
$begingroup$
You can also explain the other way. AB and BA share eigenvalues. Eigenvalues of BA are zeros consequently also eigenvalues of AB. Hence AB is nilpotent.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can also explain the other way. AB and BA share eigenvalues. Eigenvalues of BA are zeros consequently also eigenvalues of AB. Hence AB is nilpotent.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
You can also explain the other way. AB and BA share eigenvalues. Eigenvalues of BA are zeros consequently also eigenvalues of AB. Hence AB is nilpotent.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
You can also explain the other way. AB and BA share eigenvalues. Eigenvalues of BA are zeros consequently also eigenvalues of AB. Hence AB is nilpotent.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
1 hour ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA =0$
Multiply from the left by $A$ and from the right by $B$, you'll get $$ A.BABA...BA.B= (AB)(AB)...(AB)=(AB)^{k+1}=0$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You just have to replace $A$ by $B$ in your computation. Then $(AB)^{k +1}= A(BA)^k B$. I assume you can finish from here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can multiply by A on the left side and B on the right side, and you get $(AB)^{k+1} = 0$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
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active
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$begingroup$
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA =0$
Multiply from the left by $A$ and from the right by $B$, you'll get $$ A.BABA...BA.B= (AB)(AB)...(AB)=(AB)^{k+1}=0$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA =0$
Multiply from the left by $A$ and from the right by $B$, you'll get $$ A.BABA...BA.B= (AB)(AB)...(AB)=(AB)^{k+1}=0$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA =0$
Multiply from the left by $A$ and from the right by $B$, you'll get $$ A.BABA...BA.B= (AB)(AB)...(AB)=(AB)^{k+1}=0$$
$endgroup$
$(BA)^{k} = (BA)(BA)....(BA) = BABA...BA =0$
Multiply from the left by $A$ and from the right by $B$, you'll get $$ A.BABA...BA.B= (AB)(AB)...(AB)=(AB)^{k+1}=0$$
answered 1 hour ago
Fareed AFFareed AF
677112
677112
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
You just have to replace $A$ by $B$ in your computation. Then $(AB)^{k +1}= A(BA)^k B$. I assume you can finish from here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You just have to replace $A$ by $B$ in your computation. Then $(AB)^{k +1}= A(BA)^k B$. I assume you can finish from here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You just have to replace $A$ by $B$ in your computation. Then $(AB)^{k +1}= A(BA)^k B$. I assume you can finish from here.
$endgroup$
You just have to replace $A$ by $B$ in your computation. Then $(AB)^{k +1}= A(BA)^k B$. I assume you can finish from here.
answered 1 hour ago
Severin SchravenSeverin Schraven
6,7602936
6,7602936
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$begingroup$
You can multiply by A on the left side and B on the right side, and you get $(AB)^{k+1} = 0$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can multiply by A on the left side and B on the right side, and you get $(AB)^{k+1} = 0$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can multiply by A on the left side and B on the right side, and you get $(AB)^{k+1} = 0$
$endgroup$
You can multiply by A on the left side and B on the right side, and you get $(AB)^{k+1} = 0$
answered 1 hour ago
GatgatGatgat
1675
1675
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
You can also explain the other way. AB and BA share eigenvalues. Eigenvalues of BA are zeros consequently also eigenvalues of AB. Hence AB is nilpotent.
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
1 hour ago